Quite a few modern vernacular translations add the verb "is" after the third "Sanctus" to reflect a missing but understood "est" in the Latin. For example, the approved Spanish text is: "Santo, Santo, Santo es el Señor, Dios del Universo." In fact, before final changes were made in the 2010 English text, there was an "is" after the third Holy in the proposed text. That would have corrected the way the English text is recited, and folks would not be inserting a pause after the second Holy.
There is no comma after the third Sanctus/Holy in the approved English and Latin Missals (including the 1962 and earlier editions of the Missale Romanum). That punctuation should be followed when presenting the text in musical settings...
(and the Gregorian Missal should have followed it consistently)
What do you think needs to be done in order for this to occur? Greater catechesis at the national level, the diocesan level, and/or the parish level?
I think intentional, comprehensive catechesis is necessary as quickly as possible. We cannot tolerate one more day of people pronouncing a non-existent comma which makes virtually no difference in the meaning of the text.
I can often be out-of-sync with the other people at Mass, because they say it a different way at their parish.
SkirpR is correct about how the text should be recited (why it is ever recited is a matter for another discussion!) - namely, there should be no break after the third Sanctus/Holy. But good luck to anyone who tries to break the 50-year habit of folks' adding a break after the third Holy!
The phrase "Holy, Holy, Holy Lord God of Hosts" is an invocation.
I suppose you have an argument there: you could consider there to be an implied esse: holy.... (is) the Lord God of hosts. But then the text turns to direct address, referring to "gloria tua". So I have to figure that the intent of the first expression is also direct address, even though it's not "Sancte Deus". Hm.
Biblically speaking, the whole thing is angels talking to each other about God: "Et clamabant alter ad alterum, et dicebant: Sanctus, sanctus, sanctus, Dominus Deus exercituum, plena est omnis terra gloria eius" (Is. 6:3). At some point a deliberate decision appears to have been made in the liturgy to change eius to tua, but not to correspondingly change sanctus Dominus to sancte Domine (and also to retain sabaoth from the Septuagint, contra the Vulgate). I couldn't say why. The overall effect is indeed puzzling and not scripturally sound.
So I fail to see how "the intent of the first expression is also direct address."
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