This is purely an academic question, and one the answer to which I am really neutral about. It is put forth for consideration merely put into clearer relief a common notion regarding psalmody versus hymnody in the mass. So: it is said that the hymn is a 'closed' form, sung for its own sake, which rightly demands to be sung in its entirety. Ergo, it is not appropriate at mass because, giving it its due, it may interupt the liturgical action by taking too long. In this it is contrasted with proper psalmody which is said not to be 'closed' and can be cut off whenever the liturgical action during which it is sung is completed. The (purely academic) question: why is it more appropriate to cut a psalm short of its completion than a hymn? Why is the psalm itself not equally 'closed' and needing to be sung in its entirety? Why is cutting a psalm short less savagery than cutting a hymn short? Well, of course we know that from early times introits and other psalms were cut short upon signal from the celebrant that it was time to stop. This, in itself, though, does not answer the question being posed here. Of course, too, we know that all to often hymns are savaged by being cut short, though most of us on this forum know that this is literary barbarism, the result of a purely time-conscious attitude to liturgy. All things being equal, then, the question posed is 'why is a hymn a "closed" form and a psalm isn't - why is it not equally wrong to reduce the psalm to a few time-conscious verses'?
(And, as sort of an addendum, the concept that the psalm can be cut short as needed to cover liturgical action rather implies that its content is not too important or closely paid attention to... another ought-to-be-embarassing attitude towards the music [whether proper psalmody or hymns] which 'covers' processional activity at entrance, offertory and communion, as opposed to the meditative responsorial chant of the readings.)
My understanding of the argument is that the psalms were composed in such a manner they they are "complete" even when incomplete, so long as the entirety of each individual verse is preserved. I can't say I recall the reasoning for this, nor that I found it convincing.
Doesn't seem like much of an argument to me either. My theory is that in the propers the verse can be chosen on the fly by the cantor(s) who are presumed capable of thinking on their feet.
One of the occasions when I throw up my hands and replace the printed gradual psalm is on XRex C, which appears thus in our psalter: "Jerusalem, built as a city of compact unity. To it the tribes go up, the tribes of the LORD... Refrain ...According to the decree for Israel, to give thanks to the name of the LORD." Thoughtfully, the lectionary planners have provided for the same handout to be used the following week on Advent I A. I can't find the appropriate emoticon...
Genuinely one wonders if a mistake was made there, that the end of a year and the start of the next have the same proper.
But what do you do in year A when the proper psalm is Ps 23? Even less appropriate, one might say.
Truly this Feast has expressed mixed messages since being moved to the end of the year and given new readings. It's actually in this year (B) that it's closest to the earlier Feast, since the Gospel is the same and the Psalm (93) is plainly royal.
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