In the context of the Graduale Simplex and therefore the Missal of 1969, it is always permissible to use Psalm 34 at Communion, with its corresponding Antiphon.

What are people’s thoughts on the practice of using Psalm 34 with the proper communion antiphon of the day/feast in the Missal of 1962? While I accept that the psalms proposed in the 1950s are the fruit of significant historical research, it occurred to me that for small churches and inexperienced choirs, the one Latin psalm text (in the correct tone to match the Antiphon) might smooth the way for the adoption of the richer and fuller range of texts later. There are obvious exceptions of course, including Maundy Thursday (where the psalm is prescribed in the rite) and the Requiem Mass (where a pentitential psalm for the deceased is implied).