I'd like to challenge this on the grounds that the word 'consubstantiel' is not only directly derived from Latin (which is not uncommon in French, of course), but also seems to exist only in contexts closely related to the text to be translated. (Francophones and Francophiles, please correct me if necessary).Those modifications to the French text do seem to be accurate interpretations of the Latin text, so I wouldn't object to that.
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