Gregorian modes and psalms in the Divine Office
  • mgearthman
    Posts: 26
    In preparing the Divine Office at the seminary, I have introduced a few gregorian tones during our solemn, chanted lauds and vespers. (The psalmody has been customarily set to Mundelien, Meinrad, Weber and Gelineau tones.)

    Question for clarification that arise:

    (1) In setting a certain psalm to a gregorian psalm tone, is there a fixed relationship of a given psalm (e.g. 110) to a particular gregorian mode? (i.e. Is psalm 109/110 always set to - say - Mode 7? or is Psalm 24 always set to Mode 4? etc.)

    I suspect the answer is as complex as the question...

    (2) Or does the mode for which the psalm text is set depend on the mode of the antiphon that precedes it?
    (which i suspect is actually the case.)

    e.g. the use of the ubiquitous vespers antiphon "Dixit Dóminus" (Mode VII) automatically makes psalm 109/110 Mode VII in its psalm tone.

    (3) If that is the case - even if the antiphon Dixit Dóminus isn't used (as in Weeks I, II and IV of the current Liturgy of the Hours) - is psalm 109/110 always Mode VII?

    (I suspect not, though...)

    (4) Do the rules change when setting the Benedictus or Magnificat?
    (e.g. Ought one use the 'tonus peregrinus' on occasion?)

    Any comments / corrections / insights would be most appreciated.

    -fr. m. earthman
    houston, tx

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  • chonakchonak
    Posts: 9,229
    Hi, Fr. Earthman!

    It was a pleasure to sing along with you again in the Lassus at the Madeleine.

    Your suspicion is right: psalm tones are tied to antiphons, so if a psalm text is used with differing antiphons depending on the occasion (i.e., the calendar), the tone may have to change.

    When the psalm tone has variant endings, the ending of the tone is selected so that it leads easily to the first note of the antiphon.

    With the Benedictus or Magnificat, the same rule about mode applies, but the solemn version of the psalm tone is used, and the introductory 'incipit' figure of the tone is used on every verse. (With psalms, it's used on every-other-verse.)

    If you can get a copy of the 1934 Benedictine Antiphonale Monasticum, it contains a nice section listing all the tones, their variant endings, and showing the usage of the solemn tones for the Mag and Ben.
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  • ScottKChicago
    Posts: 349
    With the Benedictus or Magnificat, the same rule about mode applies, but the solemn version of the psalm tone is used, and the introductory 'incipit' figure of the tone is used on every verse. (With psalms, it's used on every-other-verse.)


    Just the first verse only, if I understand correctly. I haven't run across the incipit happening every other verse.
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  • chonakchonak
    Posts: 9,229
    Oh, yes, sorry, I misspoke.
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  • SkirpRSkirpR
    Posts: 854
    Just the first verse only, if I understand correctly. I haven't run across the incipit happening every other verse.


    Oh, yes, sorry, I misspoke.


    I follow this conversation train of thought, but for others who may not, a clarification:

    For chanting the Benedictus or Magnificat (which use the solemn tones), the incipit is sung for every verse.

    For Psalms (which use the simple tones), the incipit is used only on the first verse, remaining verses beginning right away on the reciting tone.
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  • SkirpRSkirpR
    Posts: 854
    When the psalm tone has variant endings, the ending of the tone is selected so that it leads easily to the first note of the antiphon.


    For Office antiphons, this is almost always specified above the first letter of the antiphon. Mode I f would use the ending formula 'f', Mode I g would use the ending formula 'g', etc.
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  • ScottKChicago
    Posts: 349
    For chanting the Benedictus or Magnificat (which use the solemn tones), the incipit is sung for every verse.


    Am I right in thinking it is also possible to chant the Benedictus and Magnificat non-solemnly, using the (or a) simple tone but starting every verse with the incipit?
  • SkirpRSkirpR
    Posts: 854
    Am I right in thinking it is also possible to chant the Benedictus and Magnificat non-solemnly, using the (or a) simple tone but starting every verse with the incipit?


    Anything is possible!

    But seriously, if the solemn tone would prove too difficult for the community at first, I would certainly view what you describe as a worthwhile intermediate step.
  • hartleymartin
    Posts: 1,447
    I've gotten newbies to chant office psalms by leaving off the incipit. Works quite well.
  • SkirpRSkirpR
    Posts: 854
    I've gotten newbies to chant office psalms by leaving off the incipit. Works quite well.


    Well, technically speaking, according to tradition only the cantor would sing the first half of the first verse of the psalms - the only time the incipit is supposed to be sung for psalms - which means only the cantor would need to know the incipit for the psalms anyway.
  • Chris Garton-Zavesky
    Posts: 6,902
    How timely! My parish is about to re-begin the singing of Vespers, but -so far- only on the third Sunday of the month. Thank you, Fr. Earthman, for having begun this post.


    God bless,

    Chris Garton-Zavesky
    Thanked by 1CHGiffen
  • mgearthman
    Posts: 26
    As far as Gregorian tones are concerned, the seminary community's been exposed primarily to Tone VIII G (familiar to most) and Tone I G 3.

    Even when we chanted the Magnificat to tone 8 (combined with my own transcription of the Morley falsobordone), we didn't use a more elaborate incipit, just to make it simpler.

    re: Colloquium this year.

    i appreciated the gregorian settings of Lauds from the revised Liturgy of the Hours, though i also realize and appreciate how much work it took to typeset. (I'd like to do a little more gregorian tones, in addition to using more Mundelein tones.)

    -fr. mge
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  • hartleymartin
    Posts: 1,447
    The Faux Bourdon/Falsobordone tones are something which I must look into.

    Is it the usual practice to use the regular psalm tones for the 3 psalms/canticles, and then to use the Falsobordone for the Magnificat?
  • Protasius
    Posts: 468
    It is at least a widespread practice. I also heard about the practice for high feast days to use Falsobordone for the psalms and a polyphonic Magnificat.
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  • mgearthman
    Posts: 26
    I'm attaching a transcription I did last year of a Falsobordone by Thomas Morley, set to the current Magnificat text from the Liturgy of the Hours.

    At the seminary, the schola is not large (12 members at most), and most aren't experienced singers. However, we are able to use this setting quite effectively. The original setting was SATB; however, due to the experience of the choir, I had to reduce the parts to 3 (TTB), adjusting the harmony when applicable.

    We've used this successfully on a number of 'solemn' occasions, alternating the (simplified) gregorian Mode VIII melody (accompanied by the organ) and the TTB schola a cappella.
    Magnificat VIII w Morley Falsobordone [2.5].pdf
    255K
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  • ghmus7
    Posts: 1,489
    Thank you for this!
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