My questions would center on discrepancies between Roman and American directives. For example, take this little tidbit from the GIRM:
86. While the priest is receiving the Sacrament, the Communion chant is begun. Its purpose is to express the communicants' union in spirit by means of the unity of their voices, to show joy of heart, and to highlight more clearly the "communitarian" nature of the procession to receive Communion. The singing is continued for as long as the Sacrament is being administered to the faithful.
How naughty am I if ignore this and play meditative organ music?
Naughty? Under Musicam sacram 28-31, it's not a violation to omit the communion proper. It's merely adapting "according to the capabilities of each congregation."
Why not sing a Psalm? If sung in a responsorial manner, this both suits the character of a processional chant and makes it possible for almost the whole choir (everyone but the cantor of the verses and the organist, if applicable) to receive Communion during the procession time.
It would be easy to sing the antiphon for the refrain, psalm tone verses, and twenty-three skiddoo!
I would like to know what place unofficial (all) translations of the propers hold. Do they satisfy the requirement of the proper, or are they the "fourth option"?
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