John 6:51(52)
  • RomanticStringsRomanticStrings
    Posts: 339
    Why is it that some Bible translations (Douay-Rheims and Knox, e.g.) break John 6:51 into vv. 51-52; or vice-versa, why do translations (NAB) combine John 6:51-52 into just John 6:51? They actually end up having 72 and 71 verses, respectively.

    ~Conor
  • MatthewRoth
    Posts: 2,309
    Depends on the ancient manuscript text pairings, I think.

    The verses came later than the Greek and Latin, yes, but if the Greek or Latin appear to be linked at what is now (51), then they would keep it together. Other manuscripts might suggest the division. And it also depends on how the verses have previously been assigned.
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