Maybe I'm tired and not seeing the obvious, but isn't Tone D identical to Tone II*? Looking at the Psalm Tones in my new Antiphonale Romanum, I see II* with a do clef with a Tenor of re or with a fa clef with a Tenor of so. On Tone D, I see two do clefs with Tenors on the same. Am I missing something? Don't they end up being the same? Why have both then?
The classification also extends to the antiphons, which do not share similar characteristics, i.e., Mode D antiphons do not share melodic similarities with Mode II* antiphons.
To muddy the waters further, antiphon melodies classified as II* in the Antiphonale Romanum II are classified as IV in the Graduale Simplex and earlier chant editions which classified melodies according to modes I–VIII.
Ahhhh. How are they different? Is the final different in spite of the Psalm tone final in D or something?
Yeah, I just figured out the whole II*/IV* situation thanks to a comment from van Roode elsewhere on the forum, but I was splitting hairs before then. Especially comparing my ARII tones to Weber's English Tones!
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